Thank you for your insightful article. Thank you, Paul and Allison. We need to show our joy and gratitude in having received further revelation through Joseph Smith and use the Joseph Smith Translation in many other instances. When we read the scriptures in class the teacher needs to ask the JST footnote to be read, I know not every country has the JST footnotes but an article n the Liahona would be helpful which points out the most important JST to be used in the coming year.
Paul J ChappellFebruary 27, 2019
In Matthew, it looks like God is leading us into temptation, This parallels the temptations of Christ, which implies the devil led him. In both situations, Joseph allows us to see that it is ourselves that allow temptation into our life.
Allison DunlapFebruary 27, 2019
My question is why does the Book of Mormon version read the same as Matthew's "And lead us not into temptation" when the Joseph Smith translation corrects this as "And suffer us not to be lead into temptation" ? Logic would say that Joseph would have been given the correct meaning when he originally translated the Book of Mormon. My testimony isn't shaken, I just find it odd and would love to hear a credible explanation.
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Mardonne NeimanMarch 1, 2019
Thank you for your insightful article. Thank you, Paul and Allison. We need to show our joy and gratitude in having received further revelation through Joseph Smith and use the Joseph Smith Translation in many other instances. When we read the scriptures in class the teacher needs to ask the JST footnote to be read, I know not every country has the JST footnotes but an article n the Liahona would be helpful which points out the most important JST to be used in the coming year.
Paul J ChappellFebruary 27, 2019
In Matthew, it looks like God is leading us into temptation, This parallels the temptations of Christ, which implies the devil led him. In both situations, Joseph allows us to see that it is ourselves that allow temptation into our life.
Allison DunlapFebruary 27, 2019
My question is why does the Book of Mormon version read the same as Matthew's "And lead us not into temptation" when the Joseph Smith translation corrects this as "And suffer us not to be lead into temptation" ? Logic would say that Joseph would have been given the correct meaning when he originally translated the Book of Mormon. My testimony isn't shaken, I just find it odd and would love to hear a credible explanation.
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